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2022年全国甲卷高考英语试卷真题和答案解析

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2023-02-15 15:10

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【 liuxue86.com - 英语真题 】

  高考临近,大家可以多刷一些真题,对语感会很有帮助的,大家不要焦虑哦,好好加油吧。下面是出国留学网编辑为大家整理的“2022年全国甲卷高考英语试卷真题和答案解析”供大家参考阅读,希望能够帮到您。

一、2022年全国甲卷高考英语试卷

  注意事项:

  1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

  2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。

  3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

  第一部分   听力(共两节,满分30分)

  做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

  第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

  听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

  例:How much is the shirt?

  A. £19.15.      B. £9.18.      C. £9.15.

  答案是C。

  1. What does the man want to do?

  A. Have breakfast.      B. Take a walk.      C. Call his office.

  2. What was George doing last night?

  A. Having a meeting.      B. Flying home.      C. Working on a project.

  3. Why does the man suggest going to the park?

  A. It's big.      B. It's quiet.      C. It's new.

  4. How does the woman sound?

  A. Annoyed.      B. Pleased.      C. Puzzled.

  5. Where is the man's table?

  A. Near the door.      B. By the window.      C. In the corner.

  第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

  听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

  听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

  6. What are the speakers going to do tonight?

  A. Eat out.      B. Go shopping.      C. Do sports.

  7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

  A. Boss and secretary.      B. Hostess and guest.      C. Husband and wife.

  听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

  8. Why does the woman think July is the best time to move?

  A. Their business is slow.      B. The weather is favorable.      C. It's easy to hire people.

  9. How will they handle the moving?

  A. Finish it all at once.      B. Have the sales section go first.      C. Do one department at a time.

  听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

  10. What did Peter learn from his grandfather?

  A. How to appreciate art works.

  B. How to deal with artists.

  C. How to run a museum.

  11. What did Peter do in Chicago?

  A. He studied at a college.      B. He served in the army.      C. He worked in a gallery.

  12. Whose works did Peter like best?

  A. Rembrandt's.      B. Botticelli's.      C. Rubens'.

  听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

  13. Where does the conversation take place?

  A. At a library.      B. In a law firm.      C. On a train.

  14. By what time did John plan to finish his term paper?

  A. March.      B. August.      C. October.

  15. Why did John quit his part-time job?

  A. He had to catch up with his study.      B. He was offered a better one.      C. He got tired of it.

  16. What is Susan's attitude to John's problem?

  A. Carefree.      B. Understanding.      C. Forgiving.

  听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

  17. What did the speaker do before the year 2012?

  A. A fitness coach.      B. A chess player.      C. A marathon runner.

  18. Why was the 2016 Olympics important for the speaker?

  A. He was motivated by Bolt.      B. He broke a world record.      C. He won fifth place.

  19. Which is the hardest for the speaker?

  A. Getting over an injury.      B. Doing strength training.      C. Representing Botswana.

  20. What is the speaker mainly talking about?

  A. His plan to go for the gold.

  B. His experience on the track.

  C. His love for his home country.

  第二部分  阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

  第一节(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分)

  阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

  A

  Theatres and Entertainment

  St David's Hall

  St David's Hall is the award winning National Concert Hall of Wales standing at the very heart of Cardiff's entertainment centre. With an impressive 2,000-seat concert hall, St David's Hall is home to the annual Welsh Proms Cardiff. It presents live entertainment, including pop, rock, folk, jazz, musicals, dance, world music, films and classical music.

  The Hayes, Cardiff CF 10 1 AH

  www.stdavidshallcardiff.co.uk

  The Glee Club

  Every weekend this is "Wales" premier comedy club where having a great time is the order for both audiences and comedy stars alike. It is hard to name a comedy star who hasn't been on the stage here. If you are looking for the best comedies on tour and brilliant live music, you should start here.

  Mermaid Quay, Cardiff Bay, Cardiff CF 10 5 BZ

  www.glee.co.uk/cardiff

  Sherman Cymru

  Sherman Cymru's theatre in the Cathays area of Cardiff reopened in February 2012. This special building is a place in which theatre is made and where children, artists, writers and anyone else have the opportunity (机会) to do creative things. Sherman Cymru is excited to present a packed programme of the very best theatre, dance, family shows and music from Wales and the rest of the world.

  Senghennydd Road, Cardiff CF 24 4 YE

  www.shermancymru.co.uk

  New Theatre

  The New Theatre has been the home of quality drama, musicals, dance and children's shows for more than 100 years. Presenting the best of the West End along with the pick of the UK's touring shows, the New Theatre is Cardiff's oldest surviving traditional theatre. Be sure to pay a visit as part of your stay in the city.

  Park Place, Cardiff CF 10 3 LN

  21. Where is the Welsh Proms Cardiff hosted?

  A. At the New Theatre.            B. At the Glee Club.

  C. At Sherman Cymru.            D. At St David's Hall.

  22. What can people do at the Glee Club?

  A. Watch musicals.           B. Enjoy comedies.

  C. See family shows.          D. Do creative things.

  23. Which website can you visit to learn about Cardiff's oldest surviving theatre?

  A.  www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk       B. www.shermancymru.co.uk

  C.  www.glee.co.uk/cardiff            D. www.stdavidshalleardiff.co.uk

  B

  Goffin's cockatoos, a kind of small parrot native to Australasia, have been shown to have similar shape-recognition abilities to a human two-year-old. Though not known to use tools in the wild, the birds have proved skilful at tool use while kept in the cage. In a recent experiment, cockatoos were presented with a box with a nut inside it. The clear front of the box had a "keyhole" in a geometric shape, and the birds were given five differently shaped "keys" to choese from. Inserting the correct "key" would let out the nut.

  In humans, babies can put a round shape in a round hole from around one year of age, but it will be another year before they are able to do the same with less symmetrical(对称的) shapes. his ability to recognize that a shape will need to be turned in a specific direction before it will fit is called an "allocentric frame of reference". In the experiment, Goffin's cockatoos were able to select the right tool for the job, in most cases, by visual recognition alone. Where trial-and-error was used, the cockatoos did better than monkeys in similar tests. This indicates that Goffin's cockatoos do indeed possess an allocentric frame of reference when moving objects in space, similar to two-year-old babies.

  The next step, according to the researchers, is to try and work out whether the cockatoos rely entirely on visual clues(线索), or also use a sense of touch in making their shape selections.

  24. How did the cockatoos get the nut from the box in the experiment?

  A. By following instructions.        B. By using a tool.

  C. By turning the box around.       D. By removing the lid.

  25. Which task can human one-year-olds most likely complete according to the text?

  A. Using a key to unlock a door.            B. Telling parrots from other birds.

  C. Putting a ball into a round hole.          D. Grouping toys of different shapes.

  26. What does the follow-up test aim to find out about the cockatoos?

  A. How far they are able to see.               B. How they track moving objects.

  C. Whether they are smarter than monkeys.     D. Whether they use a sense of touch in the test.

  27. Which can be a suitable title for the text?

  A. Cockatoos: Quick Error Checkers         B. Cockatoos: Independent Learners

  C. Cockatoos: Clever Signal-Readers        D. Cockatoos: Skilful Shape-Sorters

  C

  As Ginni Bazlinton reached Antarctica, she found herself greeted by a group of little Gentoo penguins(企鹅)longing to say hello. These gentle, lovely gatekeepers welcomed her and kick-started what was to be a trip Ginni would never forget.

  Ever since her childhood, Ginni, now 71, has had a deep love for travel. Throughout her career(职业)as a professional dancer, she toured in the UK, but always longed to explore further When she retired from dancing and her sons eventually flew the nest, she decided it was time to take the plunge.

  After taking a degree at Chichester University in Related Arts, Ginni began to travel the world, eventually getting work teaching English in Japan and Chile. And it was in Chile she discovered she could get last-minute cheap deals on ships going to Antarctica from the islands off Tierra del Fuego, the southernmost tip of the South American mainland. "I just decided wanted to go," she says. "I had no idea about what I'd find there and I wasn't nervous, I just wanted to do it. And I wanted to do it alone as I always prefer it that way."

  In March 2008, Ginni boarded a ship with 48 passengers she'd never met before, to begin the journey towards Antarctica. "From seeing the wildlife to witnessing sunrises, the whole experience was amazing. Antarctica left an impression on me that no other place has," Ginni says. "I remember the first time I saw a humpback whale; it just rose out of the water like some prehistoric creature and I thought it was smiling at us. You could still hear the operatic sounds it was making underwater."

  The realization that this is a precious land, to be respected by humans, was one of the biggest things that hit home to Ginni.

  28. Which of the following best explains "take the plunge" underlined in paragraph 2?

  A. Try challenging things.         B. Take a degree.

  C. Bring back lost memories.       D. Stick to a promise.

  29. What made Ginni decide on the trip to Antarctica?

  A. Lovely penguins.           B. Beautiful scenery.

  C. A discount fare.            D. A friend's invitation.

  30. What does Ginni think about Antarctica after the journey?

  A. It could be a home for her.          B. It should be easily accessible.

  C. It should be well preserved.         D. It needs to be fully introduced.

  31. What is the text mainly about?

  A. A childhood dream.                      B. An unforgettable experience.

  C. Sailing around the world.                  D. Meeting animals in Antarctica.

  D

  Sometime in the early 1960s, a significant thing happened in Sydney, Australia. The city discovered its harbor. Then, one after another, Sydney discovered tots of things that were just sort of there-broad parks, superb beaches, and a culturally diverse population. But it is the harbor that makes the city.

  Andrew Reynolds, a cheerful fellow in his early 30s, pilots Sydney ferryboats for a living. I spent the whole morning shuttling back and forth across the harbor. After our third run Andrew shut down the engine, and we went our separate ways-he for a lunch break, I to explore the city.

  "I'll miss these old boats," he said as we parted.

  "How do you mean?" I asked.

  "Oh, they're replacing them with catamarans. Catamarans are faster, but they're not so elegant, and they're not fun to pilot. Hut that's progress,I guess."

  Everywhere in Sydney these days, change and progress are the watchwords(口号), and traditions are increasingly rare. Shirley Fitzgerald, the city's official historian, told me that in its rush to modernity in the 1970s, Sydney swept aside much of its past, including many of its finest buildings. "Sydney is confused about itself," she said. "We can't seem to make up our minds whether we want a modern city or a traditional one. It's a conflict that we aren't getting any better at resolving(解决).”

  On the other hand, being young and old at the same time has its attractions. I considered this when I met a thoughtful young businessman named Anthony. "Many people say that we lack culture in this country," he told me. "What people forget is that the Italians, when they came to Australia, brought 2000 years of their culture, the Greeks some 3000 years, and the Chinese more still. We've got a foundation built on ancient cultures but with a drive and dynamism of a young country. It's a pretty hard combination to beat."

  He is right, but I can't help wishing they would keep those old ferries.

  32. What is the first paragraph mainly about?

  A. Sydney's striking architecture.           B. The cultural diversity of Sydney.

  C. The key to Sydney's development.        D. Sydney's tourist attractions in the 1960s.

  33. What can we learn about Andrew Reynolds?

  A. He goes to work by boat.           B. He looks forward to a new life.

  C. He pilots catamarans well.          D. He is attached to the old ferries.

  34. What does Shirley Fitzgerald think of Sydney?

  A. It is losing its traditions.               B. It should speed up its progress.

  C. It should expand its population.          D. It is becoming more international.

  35. Which statement will the author probably agree with?

  A. A city can be young and cad at the same time.

  B. A city built on ancient cultures is more dynamic.

  C. modernity is usually achieved at the cost of elegance.

  D. Compromise should be made between the local and the foreign.

  第二节 (其5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

  根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

  Important Things to Know When Dicing Out

  Cultural dining etiquette (礼节) might surprise you with some of its important rules.   36   Knowing some tips will help ensure that you have an enjoyable meal with friends or family-no matter where you are in the world.

  Chopstick Rules

  The way you handle chopsticks is important to avid annoying your companions. When you put them down between bite, always put them down together so they are parallel with the edge of the table in front of you.   37

  Hands or Utensils (餐具)

  In India and the Middle East, it's considered very rude to eat with your left hand. People in France expect you to cat with a utensil in each hand.   38   instead preferring to use their hands. In chide, you may never touch any fool with your fingers. People in Thailand generally use their jerks only to push food onto their spoons.

  Making Requests

  39   . In Portugal, this would be a serious mistake, because it shows the chef that you don't like their seasoning skills. Similarly, in Italy, never ask for extra cheese to add to your food.

  Some of these cultural dining etiquette rules may seem random and strange, but they are important in various countries.   40   , the more con for table you'll begin to feel with its foreign cultural practice.

  A. The more friends you make in your lifetime

  B. The more time you spend in any given country

  C. Mexicans consider it inappropriate to eat with utensils

  D. Don't get caught making an embarrassing mistake at a restaurant

  E. It's a good sign for the chef if you make a mess around your plate

  F. Never stick them upright in your food or cross them as you use them

  G. It may seem like a simple request to ask for salt and pepper at a meal

  第三部分  语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

  第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

  阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

  You can tell a lot about a man by how he treats his dogs.

  For many years, I enjoyed living with my dogs, Tilly and Chance. Their   41   was nearly enough to keep my loneliness at bay, Nearly. Last year. I started dating, but with   42   . When I first dated Steve, I   43   he had a dog. Molly, and a cat, Flora. While I was   44   that he was an animal lover, I   45   that three dogs were perhaps too many, and my dogs might attack   46   , the cat.

  The next week we   47   our dogs together. It was a hot day. When we paused to catch our   48   , Steve got down on one knee. Was he proposing (求婚)? I liked him too. But so   49   ? He poured water from a bottle into his hand and offered it to my dogs.   50   , I began to fall for him.

  We   51   to date, though neither of us brought up the future. And then in late November, Tilly had an operation on her   52   . I took the dogs out four times a day, and I worried that Tilly   53   climbing the stairs could reopen the wound. Then Steve   54   his house. All worked   55   . The three dogs formed a pack that, with coaching,   56   Flora's space; Steve and I formed a good team   57   for Tilly. We made good housemates.

  A year later, much to my   58   this man produced a little box with a ring and proposed to me. He did not kneel (跪) down, nor did I   59   him to. That's only for giving   60   to the dogs that brought us together.

  41. A. ownership         B. membership         C. companionship        D. leadership

  42. A. reservations        B. expectations         C. confidence           D. prejudice

  43. A. feared             B. doubted            C. hoped               D. learned

  44. A. unsatisfied         B. amused             C. terrified              D. thrilled

  45. A. predicted           B. worried            C. regretted             D. insisted

  46. A. Flora              B. chance             C. Molly                D. Tilly

  47. A. tied                B. walked            C. bathed               D. fed

  48. A. breath              B. balance            C. attention             D. imagination

  49. A. calm              B. sure                C. soon                D real

  50. A. By the way          B. In that case         C. By all means          D. In that moment

  51. A. continued           B. decided            C. intended              D. pretended

  52. A. eye                B. tail                C. ear                  D. leg

  53. A. secretly             B. constantly          C. eventually            D. unwillingly

  54. A. left                 B. sold               C. suggested            D. searched

  55. A. late                 B. hard              C. fine                 D. free

  56. A. emptied              B. respected          C. occupied             D. discovered

  57. A. looking              B. caring             C. waiting              D. calling

  58. A. delight               B. credit             C. interest               D. disadvantage

  59. A. beg                  B. trust              C. need                 D. aid

  60. A. toys                 B. awards             C. food                 D. water

  第二节 ( 共10小题:每小题1.5分, 满分15分 )

  阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式.

  A visually-challenged man from Beijing recently hiked (徒步) 40 days to Xi'an, aha first step   61   (journey ) the Belt and Road route (路线) by foot.

  On the 1,100. Kilometer journey, the man Cao Shengkang,   62   lost his eyesight at the age of eight in a car accident, crossed 40 cities and counties in three province. Inspired by the Belt and Road Forum for Interactional Cooperation   63   (bold) in Beijing. Cao decided to cover the route by hiking as a tribute (致敬) to the ancient Silk Road.   64   friend of his, Wu Fan, volunteered to be his companion during the trip.

  Cao and Wu also collect cd garbage along the road, in order to promote environmental   65   (protect). Cao believes this will make the hiking trip even more   66   (meaning). The two of them collected more than 1,000 plastic bottles along the 40-day journey.

  In the last five cars. Cao   67   (walk) through 34 countries in six continents, and in 2016, he reached the top of Kilimanjaro, Africa's   68   (high ) mountain.

  Now, Cao has started the second part of his dream to walk along the Belt and Road route. He flew 4, 700 kilometers   69   Xi'an to Kashgar on seat. 20,   70   (plan) to hike back to Xi'an in five months.

  第四部分  写作 (共两节,满分35分)

  第一节 短文改错 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

  假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换经改作文。请你修改你同桌写的以下作文.文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处,每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

  增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

  删除:把多余的词用斜线()划掉。

  修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

  注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

  2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第1处起)不计分。

  My father often took me to his hospital when I was off my school. He showed me how his medical instruments was used. I felt so closely to him. However, after Iwent to high school, somehow I become distant from him. I was unwilling talkwith him and often disobeyed his rule of not stay out with my friends too late. Thedisagreement was too sharp that neither he nor I knew what to settle it. One day,he talked with me or hoped to mend our relations. With the efforts made by all sides,we began to understand each other better.

  第二节  书面表达(满分25分)

  你校将以六月八日世界海洋日为主,举办英语征文比赛,请你写一篇短文投稿。

  内容包括:

  1.海洋的重要性;

  2.保护海洋的倡议。

  注意:

  1.词数100左右;

  2.短文的题目和首句已为你写好。

二、2022年全国甲卷高考英语答案解析

  第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)

  第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分 40分)

  第一节(共15小题∶每小题2分,满分30分)

  1.D 2.B 3.A 
4.B 5.C 6.D 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.C 11.A 12.D 13.D 14.A 15.A

  第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

  16.D 17.F 18.C 19.G 20.B

  第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分 45分)

  第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

  21.C22.A 23.D24.B25.B 26.A27.B28.A 29.C30. D 31.A32.D 33.B34.A 35.C36.B 37.B 38.A39.C 40.D

  第二节(共10小题∶每小题1.5分,满分15分)

  41.to journey  

  42.who

  43. held 

  44.A

  45.proection

  46.meaningful

  47.has walked

  48 highest

  49.from

  50.planning

  第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)

  第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

  1.去掉my

  2.was→were

  3.closely→close

  4.become→became

  5.talk前面加to

  6.stay→staying

  推荐阅读:

  2022年高考英语真题试卷及答案(全国甲卷)

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